Explain how to control public protests at future WTO meetings.

) The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment primarily characterized human impact on:

A) atmospheric carbon dioxide levels

B) degradation of the ozone layer

C) ecosystem services

D) plate tectonics

2) The Fourth Assessment Report, released in 2007 concluded that global climate change is

caused at least in part by the:

A) human use of fossil fuels to generate electricity and power engines

B) human use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration systems

C) harvesting of millions of acres of corn, wheat, and soybeans around the world every  year

D) depletion of groundwater supplies

3) Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere contributes to global warming by:

A) transmitting visible light and absorbing infrared radiation

B) transmitting infrared radiation and absorbing visible light

C) transmitting infrared radiation and visible light

D) absorbing infrared radiation and visible light

4) The Doha Round of WTO meetings have failed to reach agreement about:

A) currency exchange

B) converting the economies of developed nation from green to brown

C) farm subsidies and trade barriers

D) how to control public protests at future WTO meetings

5) The classical economic paradigm and the new ecological economic paradigm differ in the way

that:

A) each views the land, either as a resource within the human economy (classical) or as

something that encompasses the economy (ecological)

B) the value of capital is assessed, either in dollars (classical) or as resources that can

be mined from the Earth (ecological)

C) labor is determined, either as the number of people who are unemployed, not

counting farmers (classical), or the number of people who are unemployed counting

farmers (ecological)

D) labor and capital are assessed, either counting the total labor and capital resources

available (classical) or that which is in use in operations (ecological)

6) The ecological economic paradigm argues that the environment encompasses the economy

because the environment is essential to provide:

A) the energy necessary to run our homes and factories.

B) solar energy needed for plants and to light our environment during the day.

C) transportation along highways, railways, rivers, and oceans.

D) vital raw materials and ecosystem services and absorb wastes.

7) The ecological economists’ view emphasizes the role of:

A) amount and quality of capital available to industry.

B) abundance of well-trained, well-educated labor that is available.

C) natural ecosystems.

D) public’s understanding of the natural environment.

8) In some deserts, there are mice and lizards that are about the same size. The mice eat grains

and the lizards feed on insects. Given this information, we would expect that the biomass of  the:

A) lizards would be about the same as the mice.

B) lizards would be greater than the mice.

C) mice would be greater than the lizards.

D) lizards and mice would be about 10 times greater than the organisms that they consume.

9) Why are there so few ecosystems with more than four levels of consumers?

A) because biomass decreases by about 90% at each trophic level moving up

B) because top consumers compete with and kill each other with increasing population  size

C) because consumers at these highest trophic levels typically form social groups that  stop reproducing at high densities

D) because predators at the highest trophic levels simply are not intelligent enough to  hunt other top predators

10) The information of an energy pyramid reveals that:

A) it is expensive and inefficient to get most of your dietary calories from meats.

B) it is expensive and inefficient to get most of your dietary calories from grains.

C) consumers at lower trophic levels do not have as many calories as consumers at

higher trophic levels.

D) consumers at higher trophic levels are usually more abundant than consumers at

lower trophic levels.

11) Modern civilization and population growth had their origins in which revolution?

A) Industrial Revolution

B) Medical Revolution

C) Green Revolution

D) Neolithic Revolution

12) More efficient technologies, better urban and regional planning, policy and industrial

changes will be required to drive which revolution?

A) Industrial Revolution

B) Medical Revolution

C) Green Revolution

D) Environmental Revolution

13) Name the two most recent of the revolutions affecting the global human population.

A) Green Revolution and Environmental Revolution

B) Neolithic Revolution and Industrial Revolution

C) Medical Revolution and Neolithic Revolution

D) Medical Revolution and Green Revolution

14) The transition from high death rates to low death rates in population is a result of the :

A) Industrial Revolution.

B) Medical Revolution.

C) Green Revolution,

D) Environmental Revolution.

15) The five main revolutions of human history have all resulted in:

A) a greater reliance upon fossil fuels.

B) an increase in human carrying capacity.

C) a reduction in the spread of disease.

D) increased need for transportation.

16) Developing countries have increasingly become involved in the integrated global economy

primarily due to:

A) increased use of vaccinations.

B) improvements in sewage and sanitation.

C) constructions of dams and irrigation canals.

D) increased use of technology.

17) A study is conducted to understand how some developing countries have made social and

economic progress. Which of the following would be a surprising finding in such a study?

A) decreased fertility rates

B) increased availability of clean drinking water

C) decreased support of education

D) a decline in extreme poverty

18) Which of the following descriptions is most characteristic of the world’s poorest people?

A) On her way to high school, a young girl walks along a path at the edge of a rice field.

B) Filling a pot with clean water from a community water reserve, a mother prepares to

make a meal of rice.

C) A man in his 80s, smoking a cigarette, makes his way to cast a ballot in a

national election.

D) In a large city, a 12 year-old boy sits under a stack of tin he calls home.

19) In general, which of the following would best help to reduce extreme poverty?

A) programs specifically targeted to bring the poorest nations into the development

process

B) international efforts to promote economic growth in countries with the greatest poverty

C) increased development of environmental protection in countries with the greatest

poverty

D) adoption of cultural programs that shift populations from rural to urban locations

20) Distilling salt water to make fresh water relies upon the processes of:

A) precipitation and infiltration.

B) transpiration and evaporation.

C) evaporation and condensation.

D) condensation and transpiration.

21) Some lakes have river and stream tributaries but no outlet, losing water mainly through

evaporation. Over time, we expect that such lakes will:

A) increase their fishing productivity.

B) become deeper.

C) become saltier.

D) be good sources of drinking water.

22) Which of the following would we expect on the leeward sides of high mountain ranges?

A) rainforests

B) deserts

C) wetlands

D) deciduous forests

23) The greatest worldwide use of water is for:

A) irrigation.

B) industry.

C) human consumption.

D) washing and flushing toilets.

24) The single greatest threat to irrigated agriculture is:

A) groundwater depletion.

B) global warming.

C) flooding.

D) None of the above

25) We would expect that soil leaching would be most severe in regions where:

A) there is little rainfall and no irrigation of crops.

B) in places that are havily irrigated.

C) mollisols are abundant and farmers rarely plow.

D) cattle are grazed and natural grasses cover the land.

26) In which of the following agricultural situations are fertilizers least needed?

A) A pumpkin patch is harvested only in the fall, and the vines remain behind.

B) 1,000 acres of corn are raised and harvested for export from a midwestern farm.

C) A natural prairie pasture where cattle feed and defecate.

D) A field where a farmer applies cow manure after harvesting hay.

27) A farm field that has used only inorganic fertilizer for the past 20 years is most likely to  have:

A) fewer soil organisms and less soil structure but increased nutrient holding capacity.

B) fewer soil organisms, less soil structure, and decreased nutrient holding capacity.

C) more soil organisms, more soil structure, and increased nutrient holding capacity.

D) more soil organisms, less soil structure, and decreased nutrient holding capacity.

28) The charitable organization, Heifer International, uses donations to provide people in  developing nations with farm animals to help feed hungry families. Heifer International is  therefore contributing to:

A) the Green Revolution.

B) subsistence farming.

C) the Industrial Revolution.

D) high impact farming.

29) Many people in the developing world primarily rely upon a diet of rice. Such a diet, even  with plenty of rice available to meet the daily calorie requirements, runs the risk of:

A) malnutrition.

B) overnourishment.

C) undernourishment.

D) obesity.

30) Regularly providing food to regions with chronic hunger in developing countries can

aggravate the problem of food supplies by:

A) changing the types of native foods consumed by the local people.

B) causing nutritional deficiencies associated with a new type of food.

C) causing overnourishment and the health problems associated with obesity.

D) decreasing the local production of food and disrupting the local economy.

31) Even using the best methods for sustainable agriculture, Green Revolution grain crops in

developed nations are ultimately limited by:

A) weather.

B) pests.

C) soil degradation.

D) problems with transportation and storage.

32) In sub-Saharan Africa and Asia, the major nutritional problems relate to:

A) inadequate exercise.

B) malnutrition in pregnant women.

C) undernourishment of adults.

D) malnutrition and undernourishment, especially in children.

33) In the past 40 years, pesticide use has tripled yet pests still cause extensive damage to

crops. Why has this increased use of pesticides not been more effective?

A) The pesticides in use today are much less powerful due to government regulations.

B) The pesticides available are no longer suited for the most common types of pests.

C) Increases in ultraviolet radiation and global warming break down pesticides faster.

D) The widespread use of pesticides has resulted in the evolution of pesticide resistant  pests

34) The goals of biotechnology currently include:

A) growing crops that are more resistant to drought and disease.

B) producing greater crop yields in plants that can grow without water.

C) altering plants to increase the production of coal.

D) creating plants that do not need sunlight to grow.

35) As demands for electricity push the limits of existing electric-power-generating plants in the

United States, when is it most likely that a brown-out or blackout will disrupt electricity to your home computer?

A) during a weekend in the winter

B) during a weekday in the winter

C) during a weekend in the summer

D) during a weekday in the summer

36) A blackout like the eight-state blackout of 2003 could be prevented by:

A) using energy efficient lights in most businesses.

B) a self-healing smart electrical grid.

C) switching from coal to natural gas for electrical generation.

D) greater use of electricity during the work week instead of weekends.

37) Fossil fuels represent:

A) a large amount of paleozoic and mesozoic biomass buried anaerobically millions of

years ago.

B) natural deposits of organic materials that formed long before life on Earth evolved.

C) the remains of fossil animals that lived a few thousand years ago.

D) sustainable sources of energy that are underused today.

38) The use of enhanced recovery by an oil company:

A) primarily depends upon the current market price of oil.

B) is usually more cost effective than recovering oil using secondary recovery.

C) has not yet been used because oil reserves remain abundant.

D) is now routine, as every bit of oil is extracted from all available wells.

39) Currently, the greatest supply of natural gas in the United States is:

A) associated with petroleum deposits.

B) in gas-rich shale.

C) obtained by chemically converting petroleum into methane.

D) in deposits of coal lying under Arizona and California.

40) The Obama administration has recently revised the CAFE standards affecting fuel economy:

A) higher mileage four years sooner, in 2016.

B) higher mileage in the same period, in 2020.

C) lower mileage in the same period, in 2020.

D) lower mileage about four years later, in 2024.

41) Nuclear power plants are especially expensive because they:

A) require the highest levels of security.

B) usually cost as much to decommission as they did to build.

C) have so many parts that must be coated in gold.

D) are constructed of many thick layers of concrete.

42) Over the past 50 years, interest in nuclear power:

A) rose, decreased, and now is increasing again.

B) decreased, rose, and now is decreasing again.

C) has remained high around the world.

D) was high but then declined and continues to decline worldwide.

43) About 17,000 Russian nuclear warheads have been:

A) stored widely in the former Soviet Union where they remain today with minimal  protection.

B) dismantled, but their nuclear waste remains in Russian facilities with minimal security.

C) dismantled, with the nuclear fuel purchased by the United States for its nuclear power plants.

D) concentrated in two centralized Russian locations with high levels of security, awaiting long-term storage.

44) Looking at the number of nuclear power plants under construction in 2010:

A) the largest numbers have been in the United States, Canada, and France.

B) China, the Russian Federation and India are in the lead.

C) nuclear power is on the way out globally, with coal-fired plants rising steeply.

D) the IAEA predicts that the current trend will be reversed.

45) Which of the following is a clear advantage in the use of nuclear power instead of fossil

fuels?

A) Nuclear plants are cheaper to build than power plants that burn fossil fuels.

B) Nuclear power can be used today to power most forms of public transportation.

C) Nuclear power contributes less to global climate change.

D) Nuclear power generates fewer wastes with lower health risks.

46) New buildings that receive the energy star rating are recognized for using:

A) solar or geothermal for at least 30% of the building’s energy needs.

B) solar power for at least 50% of the building’s energy needs.

C) wind power for at least 20% of the building’s energy needs.

D) 40% less energy than other buildings in their class.

47) Photovoltaic cells are commonly used to power:

A) lawn mowers.

B) lighthouses.

C) calculators.

D) industrial manufacturing.

48) Although they have tremendous advantages, wind turbines:

A) cause thousands of bird deaths each year.

B) are known to dry out the soil in the surrounding region.

C) make the surrounding region unsuitable for farming or ranching.

D) generate greenhouse gases when producing electricity.

49) Buses and cars using fuel cells are:

A) not yet possible because the technology to safely store hydrogen is still not resolved.

B) not yet available because the fuel cell generates unsafe levels of heat.

C) still inefficient, largely because the fuel cells are large and heavy.

D) already in use and ready for commercial production.

50) Which one of the following produces the least air pollution?

A) an automobile burning hydrogen as a fuel

B) an automobile running on a hydrogen fuel cell

C) a Toyota Prius hybrid vehicle

D) a car running on natural gas

51) A tidal barrage would be used to generate electricity:

A) at the mouth of a bay.

B) at the bottom of a large lake.

C) near the tip of an ocean peninsula.

D) in the open ocean.

52)Some milk becomes contaminated with mercury. If each of the following people consume 16

ounces of this contaminated milk each day for a month, who will most likely be impacted by

this poison?

A) an 82-year-old woman

B) a fetus inside a mother who drinks this contaminated milk

C) a 12-year-old girl

D) a 51-year-old man

53) In general, countries that enjoy the best health have:

A) the warmest climates.

B) diets primarily based on eating grains.

C) the largest families.

D) good educational systems, particularly for women.

54) Malaria, dengue fever, and yellow fever are most common in:

A) North America.

B) Australia and New Zealand.

C) countries in the tropics.

D) countries that are located nearest the poles.

55) The most effective antimalarial strategies involve the use of:

A) DDT, bed nets, and quick access to drug treatment.

B) DDT, immunization, and the drainage of all standing water in a region.

C) immunizations, surgery, and a change in diet.

D) sterilization of mosquitoes, treatment of mosquito breeding sites, and antibiotics.

56) Risk assessment by the EPA currently follows four sequential steps. In order, these are:

A) exposure determination, dose-response determination, hazard control, and risk identification.

B) risk identification, hazard characterization, dose-response determination, and exposure control.

C) hazard identification, dose-response assessment, exposure assessment, and risk characterization.

D) risk characterization, exposure assessment, dose-response assessment, and hazard  assessment.

57) The EPA’s new Tox-Cast program:

A) uses enhanced animal testing to screen potentially toxic chemicals.

B) uses human cells such as stem cells to rapidly screen potentially toxic chemicals.

C) has initiated media campaigns to alert the public to toxic chemicals.

D) uses human cancer patients to screen potential allegins in the workplace.

58) The inside of a car or greenhouse would not heat up as much in the presence of sunshine if:

A) air was circulated within the car or within the greenhouse.

B) infrared radiation passed through glass as easily as sunlight.

C) infrared radiation could not pass through glass as easily as sunlight.

D) sunlight could pass through glass more easily than through air.

59) Global warming is raising sea levels because of:

A) melting ice and thermal expansion.

B) ocean basins compressed by continental drift.

C) greatly increased precipitation.

D) increased use of irrigation and drainage of wetlands on land.

60) Which one of the following has been declining globally over the past several decades?

A) nitrous oxide levels in the troposphere

B) methane levels in the troposphere

C) mean global temperature

D) pH of the world’s oceans

61) When generally comparing life in suburban sprawl and life in the inner city, people living in  the inner city:

A) walk more and shop locally.

B) have larger homes and better city services.

C) experience lower crime rates.

D) enjoy lower-density residential living.

62) Tired of the traffic jams downtown, Roxanne decides that she wants to move out to the  suburbs; then she won’t have to spend so much time in the car. One major problem with  this decision is that on average, people living in suburbs:

A) have to pay much more money for housing.

B) spend much more time walking to their destinations.

C) are faced with higher crime rates that add many more problems.

D) spend as much time commuting as people living closer to the city.

63) The choices to live in ever-expanding suburbs, despite the costs to society and the

environment, reflects a choice that places greater value on:

A) personal good over common good.

B) common good over personal good.

C) resource services over environmental services.

D) environmental services over human services.

64) Organizations such as the Shack/Slum Dwellers International are helping the people who live

in the vast slums surrounding major cities by:

A) helping them dig wells for drinking water and grow vegetable gardens near their  homes.

B) representing them to institutions such as the World Bank and city governments.

C) constructing public transportation systems within developing cities.

D) relocating them into the rural countryside where jobs are abundant.

65) One of the most common and essential ways that modern cities have become more livable is

by:

A) decreasing the density of the population throughout the cities.

B) shifting emphasis from personal automobiles to public transportation.

C) eliminating all city taxes and instead relying upon federal aid.

D) requiring all citizens to perform monthly community service.

66) The changes in behavior of the fishermen on Tangier Island since 1997 best reflects:

A) values-based stewardship.

B) personal gain.

C) sound science.

D) sustainable use of energy.

67) In a chemical reaction:

A) atoms are destroyed.

B) atoms are rearranged to form different kinds of matter.

C) new atoms are formed.

D) new elements are formed.

68) Which of the following would most likely cause the greatest harm to wild Giant Panda

populations in China?

A) captive breeding of giant pandas already in zoos throughout the world

B) restricting logging in regions within the current Giant Panda range

C) promoting the giant panda as a national symbol of China

D) the introduction of beetles that eat bamboo

69) Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) Atoms are composed of protons and compounds are composed of neutrons and

electrons.

B) Atoms are the smallest components of an element that have the element’s properties.

C) Solids are made of elements, liquids and gases are made of compounds.

D) Water is an element made from two compounds.

70) Which one of the following is a molecule but not a compound?

A) O2

B) H2O

C) CO2

D) CH4

71) Most organisms use water in:

A) liquid form.

B) the form of rain.

C) solid form.

D) gaseous form.

72) Most of the energy captured by photosynthesis is stored in chemical bonds in:

A) oxygen.

B) carbon dioxide.

C) water.

D) glucose.

 

73) In general, K-strategists have a:

A) type I survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type III survivorship pattern.

B) type II survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type I survivorship pattern.

C) type II survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type III survivorship pattern.

D) type III survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type II survivorship pattern.

74) In general, it is rare for a parasite to:

A) feed on a host.

B) kill its host.

C) spread from one host to another.

D) compete with other parasites for access to a host.

75) Rabbits in Australia:

A) have recently been eliminated by introducing a lethal rabbit virus.

B) are an example of the disastrously high biotic potential of some introduced species.

C) evolved with marsupials and are a natural part of the Australian landscape.

D) have now evolved into three new species as the rabbits have adapt to their new  environments.

76) Which one of the following illustrates intraspecific competition?

A) a butterfly feeding on the nectar of a daffodil flower

B) a sea gull swooping down to snatch a fish from the water’s surface

C) a tick and a flea sharing a dog’s back

D) male red-winged blackbirds defending nesting sites from other males

77) The concept of fitness is based on two separate abilities. These are the ability to:

A) survive and reproduce.

B) find a mate and have offspring.

C) defend against enemies and find food.

D) produce and defend a family.

78) Which one of the following is characteristic of a K-selected species?

A) fast reproductive rate

B) large body size

C) short life span

D) production of large numbers of offspring

79) Rachel Carson was particularly critical of the use of DDT to:

A) eradicate mosquitoes in wetland areas.

B) control the spread of Dutch elm disease.

C) control pests in national parks.

D) fertilize large areas of corn and soy crops.

80) The global human population in 2013 was more than:

A) 10 billion and is increasing at an annual rate of 5%.

B) 2.2 billion and is no longer growing.

C) 7.1 billion and is growing at a rate of 1.2%.

D) 13 billion and is decreasing at a rate of 3% in developing nations.

81) 40) Because of the modern environmental movement:

A) world population has remained stable.

B) coal power plants are the main source of our electricity.

C) federal government is less involved in environmental policy.

D) solved some pollution problems.

82) The statement, “The Earth was not given to you by your parents, it was lent to you from your

children” best reflects:

A) junk science.

B) higher rates of consumption of non-renewable materials.

C) stewardship.

D) the need for a strong central or military government.

83) Which of the following has been most negatively impacted by globalization?

A) local cultures’ religious and dietary traditions

B) agricultural practices

C) public-health practices

D) the exchange of information

84) The foundation of all science and scientific discovery is:

A) an already accepted theory.

B) experiments.

C) multiple hypotheses, some of which are unanswerable.

D) observations.

85) In the classical view of economic activity, households:

A) are paid for goods and services.

B) pay for most of the labor.

C) consume goods and services.

D) provide most of the products.

86) Which is an example of produced capital?

A) stocks and bonds

B) laws and policies

C) organically grown mangoes

D) fisheries

87) Environmental public policy is intended to:

A) promote the harvesting of natural resources.

B) improve human welfare and protect the natural world.

C) ensure access to natural resources for industry.

D) measure the impact of industrial wastes on the environment.

88) Today, DDT is no longer used in the United States because it is banned by law. At this point, the issue has reached the:

A) control stage.

B) implementation stage.

C) formulation stage.

D) recognition stage.

89) The modern U.S. environmental movement began as a:

A) very partisan, divided effort, but now has broad bipartisan support.

B) very partisan effort, which remains partisan and highly contested today.

C) broad bipartisan effort, which remains in effect today.

D) broad bipartisan effort but has fractured into a very contentious partisan debate with

intense lobbying.

90) The Obama administration:

A) now censors scientific study that conflicts with its position.

B) now encourages the development of renewable energy and reduction of carbon

emissions.

C) no longer requires consultation with wildlife experts before approving projects

potentially harming endangered species.

D) has slashed the EPA’s budget so that little enforcement is possible.

91) Which biome is characterized by permafrost?

A) tundra

B) high latitude temperate forests

C) cold deserts

D) high latitude coniferous forests

92) This stage of succession starts with preexisting soil:

A) aquatic to terrestrial succession.

B) primary succession.

C) intermediate succession.

D) secondary succession.

93) Which of the following represents a resilience mechanism?

A) crown fires resulting from many years of fire suppression

B) the emergence of a meadow in a recently burned forest

C) soil erosion resulting from burned soil washing away from a forest floor

D) burned trees accumulating on a forest floor after a fire

94) Energy transfer between trophic levels in aquatic systems is generally:

A) less efficient than terrestrial food pyramids.

B) less efficient than a detritus food web because aquatic systems lack fungi.

C) inverted, in which more energy is transferred from one trophic level up to the next.

D) more efficient than terrestrial systems.

95) About 40% of the land’s primary production on Earth:

A) has been destroyed by global climate change.

B) has been appropriated to meet human needs.

C) uses more oxygen than it produces.

D) has been lost just to build enough homes for all of the people on Earth.

96) The social and economic changes in Thailand over the past 50 years have:

A) caused the population to decline by 20%.

B) been at the expense of poorer nutrition for children.

C) slowed population growth significantly.

D) shown that the nation has yet to undergo the fertility transition.

97) Two conflicting approaches to helping countries through the demographic transition require  different types of aid. An attempt to provide aid using both approaches might include:

A) desalination plants to bring in more fresh water and distribution of vaccines.

B) shipments of large amounts of food and improvements in sanitation systems.

C) construction of recycling plants and investment in pollution control systems.

D) investments in banks and distribution of birth control.

98) The most recent Cairo population conference in 1994 found widespread agreement that the greatest way to help developing countries was to:

A) limit their population growth.

B) increase their use of modern medicine.

C) improve their agricultural productivity.

D) limit their environmental degradation.

99) The window of opportunity presented by the demographic dividend generally ends as:

A) people start having larger families.

B) people live longer.

C) economic pressures require more people to work.

D) rural populations increase.

100) The Millennium Development Goals were wide ranging, but did not specifically address:

A) communicable disease.

B) maternal health and child mortality.

C) higher secondary and college education.

D) environmental sustainability

How and what professionals communicate regarding assessment data will vary according to the purpose of the assessment and how the data is likely to be utilized.

  1. Professionals must develop plans for gathering and using assessment data. Select three of the strategies presented on pages 139–142 of Assessing and Guiding Young Children’s Development and Learning, and explain how each strategy that you selected can be used to provide ongoing support for children’s development and learning.

 

  1. How and what professionals communicate regarding assessment data will vary according to the purpose of the assessment and how the data is likely to be utilized. Review pages 204–210 of Assessing and Guiding Young Children’s Development and Learning and explain how assessment data can be used within different contexts and for different purposes.

  1. According to the DVD segment, “Partnering with Families,” communicating with families is an essential part of quality assessment practices. Review pages 194–205 of Assessing and Guiding Young Children’s Development and Learning and the DVD segment, “Partnering with Families.” Put yourself in the place of a parent of a young child. Describe how you would like to be involved in the assessment process and explain which reporting strategy or strategies that you would like your child’s teacher to use to communicate information about your child to you and why.

. Which of the following is NOT listed in your text as part of the professional structure which governs ethics for counselors?

1. When people are just concerned with compliance with laws or professional
standards (e.g. codes of ethics), what level of ethics is involved?
b. aspirational
c. mandatory
d. principled
e. unprincipled
2. Which one of the following statements is NOT CONSISTENT with the
philosophy of Nietzsche?
a. the theory of evolution
b. we should be assisting the development of survival of the fittest
c. we should be directed by pity
d. the weak and the failures should perish
3. When there is a discussion of “theory” as related to judgments of right and
wrong, the discussion is probably one of:
a. philosophical morality
b. professional ethics
c. common morality
d. philosophical ethics
e. none of the above
4. Which of the following is NOT listed in your text as part of the professional
structure which governs ethics for counselors?
a. the courts
b. colleges and universities
c. professional organizations that maintain and enforce a mandatory code of
ethics
d. professional regulatory bodies that are enforcers of mandatory codes
e. none of the above
5. There are different types of accreditation. Beyond a college or university’s
accreditation to offer degrees, there is accreditation for programs, typically
called:
a. diplomate accreditation
b. professional accreditation
c. specialty accreditation
d. board approval
1

f.
PSY511 – Professional Ethics and the Law
6. The oldest and most widely recognized professional counseling specialty
designation is the credential.
a. A.C.A.
b. ASPS
c. C.R.C.C.
d. C.R.C.
e. M.F.T.
7. A voluntary means for professionals to identify themselves as trained and
qualified specialists is:
a. licensure
b. certification
c. internship
d. accreditation
e. none of the above
8. Which professional(s) can NOT legitimately, by nature of standard training
and practice, perform psychometric assessment?
a. social worker
b. counselor
c. psychologist
d. marriage and family therapist
e. none of the above
9. The ASPP and ASPS credential applies to which field of mental health
specialty?
a. Marriage and Family Therapy
b. Psychology
c. Psychiatry
d. Social Work
e. Psychiatric Nursing
10. Which of the following degrees does NOT indicate legitimate doctoral level
training to be a licensed Psychologist?
a. Ph.D.
b. Ed.D.
c. Psy.D
d. none of the above
2

g.
PSY511 – Professional Eth ics and the Law
11. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Counselors can ethically practice any specialty in counseling, even without
appropriate specialty training, if it is within the scope of practice of their
license.
b. Cottone and Tarvydas believe the terms “dual” and “multiple”
relationships should be abandoned.
c. Avoiding detrimental relationships with clients relates to the ethical
principle of justice more than nonmaleficence.
d. People who refuse recommended counseling services must be coerced.
12. When a judge orders an ex offender to undergo therapy as part of the ex-
offender’s rehabilitation, this is called:
a. expert order of protection
b. compulsory therapy
c. professional responsi bi I ity
d. legal privilege
13. Professional competence by definition involves:
a. the quality of provided services
b. boundaries of professional activity
c. confidentiality
d. informed consent
e. a and b
14. Having sex with a client is:
a. unethical counseling practice
b. only allowed after the client and therapist relationship has been
terminated for at least one year
c. acceptable with a written agreement and a waiver of ethical rights
d. none of the above
15. The Tarasoff decision refers to what?
a. The duty of an ethics board to suspend licensure after a clear ethics
violation.
b. The duty of a therapist to keep confidentiality even when called as a
witness in court cases.
c. The duty of a therapist to break confidentiality when someone makes a
direct threat.
d. none of the above
3

h.
PSY511 – Professional Eth ies and the Law
16. A counselor’s primary responsibility is to the:
a. third party if they are the ones paying the bill
b. judge who subpoenas a case file
c. family of a competent adult client seen in individual counseling
d. client, and the client only
e. all of the above
17. The term that pertains to the legal right of clients to prevent their confidential
communications from being revealed in legal proceedings is:
a. privacy
b. confidentiality
c. privileged communication
d. informed consent
18. When assessing a client’s potential for harm, Beauchamp and Childress
recommend the counselor assess primarily which element(s)?
a. probability of harm
b. physical vs. psychological nature of harm
c. magnitude of harm
d. both a and c are correct
19. According to Welch (2003), one of the most common types of malpractice
liability in treatment services for mental health professionals is:
a. fraudulent billing
b. dual relationships
c. family treatment and forensic situations
d. group counseling
20. Which of the following conditions is NOT a required element of informed
consent?
a. capacity
b. voluntariness
c. comprehension
d. literacy
4

i.
PSY511 – Professional Ethics and the Law
2l. law addresses conduct required by or prohibited by all
individuals and is enforced by governmental legal authorities.
a. Professional
b. Case
c. Civil law
d. Criminal
22. Client values determine the of counseling.
a. content
b. level of progress
c. process
d. all of the above
23. Counselor values tend to determine the of counseling.
a. process
b. content
c. level of professionalism
d. rate of progress
24. Principle ethics can be said to be based primarily upon which of the
following?
a. western culture
b. religion
c. male-oriented worldview
d. all of the above
e. a and conly
25. Why has the ethics of care approach been criticized?
a. The focus is primarily societal with lack of concern for the individual.
b. Application is limited to the health sciences.
c. There is a lack of a coherent definition.
d. all of the above
5

j.
PSY511 – Professional Ethics and the Law
26. The ethical decision-making model introduced by Cottone is based upon what
theoretical model?
a. general psychologically based models
b. post-positivism
c. social constructivism
d. none of the above
27. Ethical decision making models often provide a series of steps for making an
ethical choice, however they may fail to describe which of the following:
a. the consequences that can occur when an ineffective course of action is
taken
b. how the choice in a specific course of action occurs (an exploratory frame
work for the decision process itself)
c. how values are weighed by the decision maker
d. all of the above
28. According to the social constructivism process in ethical decision making,
when consensualizing fails, then parties may engage in reflective interaction
to _
a. accompl ish an agreement on the decision to be made
b. determine whether arbitration should be undertaken
c. be able to make the decision on their own
d. hold firm to their original position
29. Ethical dilemmas are atn).
a. sign of the importance of professional judgment
b. failure of ethical codes
c. affirmation that one is “practicing” a profession
d. only a and c of the above
e. all of the above
30. Hare argued that the intuitive level of everyday decision making was not
sufficient and is superceded by another level of moral decision making. What
is that level?
a. reflective
b. critical thinking
c. consu Itative
d. fact finding
6

k.
PSY511 – Professional Ethics and the Law
31. Cottone’s model of ethical decision making is based on:
a. purely social-relational model
b. purely relational theory
c. ethical principles
d. psychologically-based ethical decision making
32. When colleagues engage in bullying, harassment, or emotional abuse of an
individual within the workplace, this would be described as:
a. a normal difference of opinion that occasionally occurs within a
workplace
b. individuals who are experiencing conflict due to holding similar values
c. relational issues that are normal when people work closely with one an
other
d. a case of mobbing within an organizational culture
e. all of the above
33. Several states have acknowledged that mental injury can result from
excessive stress on the job and this phenomenon has been called:
a. occupational mental injury
b. overstress syndrome
c. organizational mental injury
d. mental health injury
34. At present there are several corporations that are establishing company
policies that support an individual’s right to be employed in an environment
that is free from mobbing.
a. false, it would never work
b. false that is something for the future
c. true, this is happening at present
d. none of the above are correct
35. Professional roles within an organizational culture are constructed in response
to which of the following?
a. professional practices
b. institutional expectations
c. personal needs
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above
7

l.
PSY511 – Professional Ethics and the Law
36. Pro bono publico refers to what?
a. working as a counselor for the state, or county and serving the
general public
b. being an expert witness at a criminal trial
c. serving a client at no charge
d. none of the above
e. a spanish speaking counselor
37. It is standard practice to destroy case records generally years after
services have been terminated.
a. 10-12
b. 4-6
c. 8-10
d. none of the above
38. Regarding the ethical issues surrounding complimentary and alternative
medicine, which of the following statements is true?
a. The current status quo does not include a “don’t ask/don’t tell” approach.
b. Managed care typically never rei mburses for CAMs.
c. CAM advocates may be denying the role of traditional medicine.
d. Individuals who choose CAMs as a treatment forfeit their right to
autonomy.
39. Areas of major ethical concern in working with people with HIV include:
a. stigma
b. informed consent
c. confidentiality
d. both band c are correct
40. A rehabilitation counselor working for a managed care company is concerned
about the limitations the company is placing on the treatment of the clients
they are seeing. The next time this counselor sees a client, they place a more
severe diagnosis in the clients chart in an attempt to obtain an increased
number of counseling sessions. This behavior is unethical and is considered
which of the following?
a. downcoding
b. underdiagnosing
c. bartering
d. bono publico
e. overdiagnosing
8

m.
PSY511 – Professional Ethics and the Law
41. Passive euthanasia would best be defined as:
a. rational suicide
b. intentional termination of life
c. mercy killing
d. none of the above
42. The study of the entire set of human genes, the assembly of the gene
sequence, gene expression and the relationship between different gene
sequences is called:
a. genomics
b. genetics
c. human genome project
d. genetic decoding
e. none of the above
43. A type of test administration that especially does not transfer well to
computerized assessment is:
a. vocational interest testing
b. aptitude testing
c. personality testing
d. none of the above
44. According to the text, which of the following is (are) the most likely reason(s)
why counselors may not purchase adequate computer safety systems to
protect cl ient data?
a. ignorance
b. presumed unlikelihood of unethical file disclosure
c. amount of installation time required
d. a and b only
e. all of the above
45. HIPPA rules require that the counselor disclose policies related to the use
and disclosure of protected health information and that this occur:
a. within 24 hours of the first treatment contact
b. within 48 hours of the first treatment contact
c. within a week of the first treatment contact
d. none of the above
9

The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment primarily characterized human impact on:

1) The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment primarily characterized human impact on:

A) atmospheric carbon dioxide levels

B) degradation of the ozone layer

C) ecosystem services

D) plate tectonics

2) The Fourth Assessment Report, released in 2007 concluded that global climate change is

caused at least in part by the:

A) human use of fossil fuels to generate electricity and power engines

B) human use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration systems

C) harvesting of millions of acres of corn, wheat, and soybeans around the world every  year

D) depletion of groundwater supplies

3) Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere contributes to global warming by:

A) transmitting visible light and absorbing infrared radiation

B) transmitting infrared radiation and absorbing visible light

C) transmitting infrared radiation and visible light

D) absorbing infrared radiation and visible light

4) The Doha Round of WTO meetings have failed to reach agreement about:

A) currency exchange

B) converting the economies of developed nation from green to brown

C) farm subsidies and trade barriers

D) how to control public protests at future WTO meetings

5) The classical economic paradigm and the new ecological economic paradigm differ in the way

that:

A) each views the land, either as a resource within the human economy (classical) or as

something that encompasses the economy (ecological)

B) the value of capital is assessed, either in dollars (classical) or as resources that can

be mined from the Earth (ecological)

C) labor is determined, either as the number of people who are unemployed, not

counting farmers (classical), or the number of people who are unemployed counting

farmers (ecological)

D) labor and capital are assessed, either counting the total labor and capital resources

available (classical) or that which is in use in operations (ecological)

6) The ecological economic paradigm argues that the environment encompasses the economy

because the environment is essential to provide:

A) the energy necessary to run our homes and factories.

B) solar energy needed for plants and to light our environment during the day.

C) transportation along highways, railways, rivers, and oceans.

D) vital raw materials and ecosystem services and absorb wastes.

7) The ecological economists’ view emphasizes the role of:

A) amount and quality of capital available to industry.

B) abundance of well-trained, well-educated labor that is available.

C) natural ecosystems.

D) public’s understanding of the natural environment.

8) In some deserts, there are mice and lizards that are about the same size. The mice eat grains

and the lizards feed on insects. Given this information, we would expect that the biomass of  the:

A) lizards would be about the same as the mice.

B) lizards would be greater than the mice.

C) mice would be greater than the lizards.

D) lizards and mice would be about 10 times greater than the organisms that they consume.

9) Why are there so few ecosystems with more than four levels of consumers?

A) because biomass decreases by about 90% at each trophic level moving up

B) because top consumers compete with and kill each other with increasing population  size

C) because consumers at these highest trophic levels typically form social groups that  stop reproducing at high densities

D) because predators at the highest trophic levels simply are not intelligent enough to  hunt other top predators

10) The information of an energy pyramid reveals that:

A) it is expensive and inefficient to get most of your dietary calories from meats.

B) it is expensive and inefficient to get most of your dietary calories from grains.

C) consumers at lower trophic levels do not have as many calories as consumers at

higher trophic levels.

D) consumers at higher trophic levels are usually more abundant than consumers at

lower trophic levels.

11) Modern civilization and population growth had their origins in which revolution?

A) Industrial Revolution

B) Medical Revolution

C) Green Revolution

D) Neolithic Revolution

12) More efficient technologies, better urban and regional planning, policy and industrial

changes will be required to drive which revolution?

A) Industrial Revolution

B) Medical Revolution

C) Green Revolution

D) Environmental Revolution

13) Name the two most recent of the revolutions affecting the global human population.

A) Green Revolution and Environmental Revolution

B) Neolithic Revolution and Industrial Revolution

C) Medical Revolution and Neolithic Revolution

D) Medical Revolution and Green Revolution

14) The transition from high death rates to low death rates in population is a result of the :

A) Industrial Revolution.

B) Medical Revolution.

C) Green Revolution,

D) Environmental Revolution.

15) The five main revolutions of human history have all resulted in:

A) a greater reliance upon fossil fuels.

B) an increase in human carrying capacity.

C) a reduction in the spread of disease.

D) increased need for transportation.

16) Developing countries have increasingly become involved in the integrated global economy

primarily due to:

A) increased use of vaccinations.

B) improvements in sewage and sanitation.

C) constructions of dams and irrigation canals.

D) increased use of technology.

17) A study is conducted to understand how some developing countries have made social and

economic progress. Which of the following would be a surprising finding in such a study?

A) decreased fertility rates

B) increased availability of clean drinking water

C) decreased support of education

D) a decline in extreme poverty

18) Which of the following descriptions is most characteristic of the world’s poorest people?

A) On her way to high school, a young girl walks along a path at the edge of a rice field.

B) Filling a pot with clean water from a community water reserve, a mother prepares to

make a meal of rice.

C) A man in his 80s, smoking a cigarette, makes his way to cast a ballot in a

national election.

D) In a large city, a 12 year-old boy sits under a stack of tin he calls home.

19) In general, which of the following would best help to reduce extreme poverty?

A) programs specifically targeted to bring the poorest nations into the development

process

B) international efforts to promote economic growth in countries with the greatest poverty

C) increased development of environmental protection in countries with the greatest

poverty

D) adoption of cultural programs that shift populations from rural to urban locations

20) Distilling salt water to make fresh water relies upon the processes of:

A) precipitation and infiltration.

B) transpiration and evaporation.

C) evaporation and condensation.

D) condensation and transpiration.

21) Some lakes have river and stream tributaries but no outlet, losing water mainly through

evaporation. Over time, we expect that such lakes will:

A) increase their fishing productivity.

B) become deeper.

C) become saltier.

D) be good sources of drinking water.

22) Which of the following would we expect on the leeward sides of high mountain ranges?

A) rainforests

B) deserts

C) wetlands

D) deciduous forests

23) The greatest worldwide use of water is for:

A) irrigation.

B) industry.

C) human consumption.

D) washing and flushing toilets.

24) The single greatest threat to irrigated agriculture is:

A) groundwater depletion.

B) global warming.

C) flooding.

D) None of the above

25) We would expect that soil leaching would be most severe in regions where:

A) there is little rainfall and no irrigation of crops.

B) in places that are havily irrigated.

C) mollisols are abundant and farmers rarely plow.

D) cattle are grazed and natural grasses cover the land.

26) In which of the following agricultural situations are fertilizers least needed?

A) A pumpkin patch is harvested only in the fall, and the vines remain behind.

B) 1,000 acres of corn are raised and harvested for export from a midwestern farm.

C) A natural prairie pasture where cattle feed and defecate.

D) A field where a farmer applies cow manure after harvesting hay.

27) A farm field that has used only inorganic fertilizer for the past 20 years is most likely to  have:

A) fewer soil organisms and less soil structure but increased nutrient holding capacity.

B) fewer soil organisms, less soil structure, and decreased nutrient holding capacity.

C) more soil organisms, more soil structure, and increased nutrient holding capacity.

D) more soil organisms, less soil structure, and decreased nutrient holding capacity.

28) The charitable organization, Heifer International, uses donations to provide people in  developing nations with farm animals to help feed hungry families. Heifer International is  therefore contributing to:

A) the Green Revolution.

B) subsistence farming.

C) the Industrial Revolution.

D) high impact farming.

29) Many people in the developing world primarily rely upon a diet of rice. Such a diet, even  with plenty of rice available to meet the daily calorie requirements, runs the risk of:

A) malnutrition.

B) overnourishment.

C) undernourishment.

D) obesity.

30) Regularly providing food to regions with chronic hunger in developing countries can

aggravate the problem of food supplies by:

A) changing the types of native foods consumed by the local people.

B) causing nutritional deficiencies associated with a new type of food.

C) causing overnourishment and the health problems associated with obesity.

D) decreasing the local production of food and disrupting the local economy.

31) Even using the best methods for sustainable agriculture, Green Revolution grain crops in

developed nations are ultimately limited by:

A) weather.

B) pests.

C) soil degradation.

D) problems with transportation and storage.

32) In sub-Saharan Africa and Asia, the major nutritional problems relate to:

A) inadequate exercise.

B) malnutrition in pregnant women.

C) undernourishment of adults.

D) malnutrition and undernourishment, especially in children.

33) In the past 40 years, pesticide use has tripled yet pests still cause extensive damage to

crops. Why has this increased use of pesticides not been more effective?

A) The pesticides in use today are much less powerful due to government regulations.

B) The pesticides available are no longer suited for the most common types of pests.

C) Increases in ultraviolet radiation and global warming break down pesticides faster.

D) The widespread use of pesticides has resulted in the evolution of pesticide resistant  pests

34) The goals of biotechnology currently include:

A) growing crops that are more resistant to drought and disease.

B) producing greater crop yields in plants that can grow without water.

C) altering plants to increase the production of coal.

D) creating plants that do not need sunlight to grow.

35) As demands for electricity push the limits of existing electric-power-generating plants in the

United States, when is it most likely that a brown-out or blackout will disrupt electricity to your home computer?

A) during a weekend in the winter

B) during a weekday in the winter

C) during a weekend in the summer

D) during a weekday in the summer

36) A blackout like the eight-state blackout of 2003 could be prevented by:

A) using energy efficient lights in most businesses.

B) a self-healing smart electrical grid.

C) switching from coal to natural gas for electrical generation.

D) greater use of electricity during the work week instead of weekends.

37) Fossil fuels represent:

A) a large amount of paleozoic and mesozoic biomass buried anaerobically millions of

years ago.

B) natural deposits of organic materials that formed long before life on Earth evolved.

C) the remains of fossil animals that lived a few thousand years ago.

D) sustainable sources of energy that are underused today.

38) The use of enhanced recovery by an oil company:

A) primarily depends upon the current market price of oil.

B) is usually more cost effective than recovering oil using secondary recovery.

C) has not yet been used because oil reserves remain abundant.

D) is now routine, as every bit of oil is extracted from all available wells.

39) Currently, the greatest supply of natural gas in the United States is:

A) associated with petroleum deposits.

B) in gas-rich shale.

C) obtained by chemically converting petroleum into methane.

D) in deposits of coal lying under Arizona and California.

40) The Obama administration has recently revised the CAFE standards affecting fuel economy:

A) higher mileage four years sooner, in 2016.

B) higher mileage in the same period, in 2020.

C) lower mileage in the same period, in 2020.

D) lower mileage about four years later, in 2024.

41) Nuclear power plants are especially expensive because they:

A) require the highest levels of security.

B) usually cost as much to decommission as they did to build.

C) have so many parts that must be coated in gold.

D) are constructed of many thick layers of concrete.

42) Over the past 50 years, interest in nuclear power:

A) rose, decreased, and now is increasing again.

B) decreased, rose, and now is decreasing again.

C) has remained high around the world.

D) was high but then declined and continues to decline worldwide.

43) About 17,000 Russian nuclear warheads have been:

A) stored widely in the former Soviet Union where they remain today with minimal  protection.

B) dismantled, but their nuclear waste remains in Russian facilities with minimal security.

C) dismantled, with the nuclear fuel purchased by the United States for its nuclear power plants.

D) concentrated in two centralized Russian locations with high levels of security, awaiting long-term storage.

44) Looking at the number of nuclear power plants under construction in 2010:

A) the largest numbers have been in the United States, Canada, and France.

B) China, the Russian Federation and India are in the lead.

C) nuclear power is on the way out globally, with coal-fired plants rising steeply.

D) the IAEA predicts that the current trend will be reversed.

45) Which of the following is a clear advantage in the use of nuclear power instead of fossil

fuels?

A) Nuclear plants are cheaper to build than power plants that burn fossil fuels.

B) Nuclear power can be used today to power most forms of public transportation.

C) Nuclear power contributes less to global climate change.

D) Nuclear power generates fewer wastes with lower health risks.

46) New buildings that receive the energy star rating are recognized for using:

A) solar or geothermal for at least 30% of the building’s energy needs.

B) solar power for at least 50% of the building’s energy needs.

C) wind power for at least 20% of the building’s energy needs.

D) 40% less energy than other buildings in their class.

47) Photovoltaic cells are commonly used to power:

A) lawn mowers.

B) lighthouses.

C) calculators.

D) industrial manufacturing.

48) Although they have tremendous advantages, wind turbines:

A) cause thousands of bird deaths each year.

B) are known to dry out the soil in the surrounding region.

C) make the surrounding region unsuitable for farming or ranching.

D) generate greenhouse gases when producing electricity.

49) Buses and cars using fuel cells are:

A) not yet possible because the technology to safely store hydrogen is still not resolved.

B) not yet available because the fuel cell generates unsafe levels of heat.

C) still inefficient, largely because the fuel cells are large and heavy.

D) already in use and ready for commercial production.

50) Which one of the following produces the least air pollution?

A) an automobile burning hydrogen as a fuel

B) an automobile running on a hydrogen fuel cell

C) a Toyota Prius hybrid vehicle

D) a car running on natural gas

51) A tidal barrage would be used to generate electricity:

A) at the mouth of a bay.

B) at the bottom of a large lake.

C) near the tip of an ocean peninsula.

D) in the open ocean.

52)Some milk becomes contaminated with mercury. If each of the following people consume 16

ounces of this contaminated milk each day for a month, who will most likely be impacted by

this poison?

A) an 82-year-old woman

B) a fetus inside a mother who drinks this contaminated milk

C) a 12-year-old girl

D) a 51-year-old man

53) In general, countries that enjoy the best health have:

A) the warmest climates.

B) diets primarily based on eating grains.

C) the largest families.

D) good educational systems, particularly for women.

54) Malaria, dengue fever, and yellow fever are most common in:

A) North America.

B) Australia and New Zealand.

C) countries in the tropics.

D) countries that are located nearest the poles.

55) The most effective antimalarial strategies involve the use of:

A) DDT, bed nets, and quick access to drug treatment.

B) DDT, immunization, and the drainage of all standing water in a region.

C) immunizations, surgery, and a change in diet.

D) sterilization of mosquitoes, treatment of mosquito breeding sites, and antibiotics.

56) Risk assessment by the EPA currently follows four sequential steps. In order, these are:

A) exposure determination, dose-response determination, hazard control, and risk identification.

B) risk identification, hazard characterization, dose-response determination, and exposure control.

C) hazard identification, dose-response assessment, exposure assessment, and risk characterization.

D) risk characterization, exposure assessment, dose-response assessment, and hazard  assessment.

57) The EPA’s new Tox-Cast program:

A) uses enhanced animal testing to screen potentially toxic chemicals.

B) uses human cells such as stem cells to rapidly screen potentially toxic chemicals.

C) has initiated media campaigns to alert the public to toxic chemicals.

D) uses human cancer patients to screen potential allegins in the workplace.

58) The inside of a car or greenhouse would not heat up as much in the presence of sunshine if:

A) air was circulated within the car or within the greenhouse.

B) infrared radiation passed through glass as easily as sunlight.

C) infrared radiation could not pass through glass as easily as sunlight.

D) sunlight could pass through glass more easily than through air.

59) Global warming is raising sea levels because of:

A) melting ice and thermal expansion.

B) ocean basins compressed by continental drift.

C) greatly increased precipitation.

D) increased use of irrigation and drainage of wetlands on land.

60) Which one of the following has been declining globally over the past several decades?

A) nitrous oxide levels in the troposphere

B) methane levels in the troposphere

C) mean global temperature

D) pH of the world’s oceans

61) When generally comparing life in suburban sprawl and life in the inner city, people living in  the inner city:

A) walk more and shop locally.

B) have larger homes and better city services.

C) experience lower crime rates.

D) enjoy lower-density residential living.

62) Tired of the traffic jams downtown, Roxanne decides that she wants to move out to the  suburbs; then she won’t have to spend so much time in the car. One major problem with  this decision is that on average, people living in suburbs:

A) have to pay much more money for housing.

B) spend much more time walking to their destinations.

C) are faced with higher crime rates that add many more problems.

D) spend as much time commuting as people living closer to the city.

63) The choices to live in ever-expanding suburbs, despite the costs to society and the

environment, reflects a choice that places greater value on:

A) personal good over common good.

B) common good over personal good.

C) resource services over environmental services.

D) environmental services over human services.

64) Organizations such as the Shack/Slum Dwellers International are helping the people who live

in the vast slums surrounding major cities by:

A) helping them dig wells for drinking water and grow vegetable gardens near their  homes.

B) representing them to institutions such as the World Bank and city governments.

C) constructing public transportation systems within developing cities.

D) relocating them into the rural countryside where jobs are abundant.

65) One of the most common and essential ways that modern cities have become more livable is

by:

A) decreasing the density of the population throughout the cities.

B) shifting emphasis from personal automobiles to public transportation.

C) eliminating all city taxes and instead relying upon federal aid.

D) requiring all citizens to perform monthly community service.

66) The changes in behavior of the fishermen on Tangier Island since 1997 best reflects:

A) values-based stewardship.

B) personal gain.

C) sound science.

D) sustainable use of energy.

67) In a chemical reaction:

A) atoms are destroyed.

B) atoms are rearranged to form different kinds of matter.

C) new atoms are formed.

D) new elements are formed.

68) Which of the following would most likely cause the greatest harm to wild Giant Panda

populations in China?

A) captive breeding of giant pandas already in zoos throughout the world

B) restricting logging in regions within the current Giant Panda range

C) promoting the giant panda as a national symbol of China

D) the introduction of beetles that eat bamboo

69) Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) Atoms are composed of protons and compounds are composed of neutrons and

electrons.

B) Atoms are the smallest components of an element that have the element’s properties.

C) Solids are made of elements, liquids and gases are made of compounds.

D) Water is an element made from two compounds.

70) Which one of the following is a molecule but not a compound?

A) O2

B) H2O

C) CO2

D) CH4

71) Most organisms use water in:

A) liquid form.

B) the form of rain.

C) solid form.

D) gaseous form.

72) Most of the energy captured by photosynthesis is stored in chemical bonds in:

A) oxygen.

B) carbon dioxide.

C) water.

D) glucose.

 

73) In general, K-strategists have a:

A) type I survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type III survivorship pattern.

B) type II survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type I survivorship pattern.

C) type II survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type III survivorship pattern.

D) type III survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type II survivorship pattern.

74) In general, it is rare for a parasite to:

A) feed on a host.

B) kill its host.

C) spread from one host to another.

D) compete with other parasites for access to a host.

75) Rabbits in Australia:

A) have recently been eliminated by introducing a lethal rabbit virus.

B) are an example of the disastrously high biotic potential of some introduced species.

C) evolved with marsupials and are a natural part of the Australian landscape.

D) have now evolved into three new species as the rabbits have adapt to their new  environments.

76) Which one of the following illustrates intraspecific competition?

A) a butterfly feeding on the nectar of a daffodil flower

B) a sea gull swooping down to snatch a fish from the water’s surface

C) a tick and a flea sharing a dog’s back

D) male red-winged blackbirds defending nesting sites from other males

77) The concept of fitness is based on two separate abilities. These are the ability to:

A) survive and reproduce.

B) find a mate and have offspring.

C) defend against enemies and find food.

D) produce and defend a family.

78) Which one of the following is characteristic of a K-selected species?

A) fast reproductive rate

B) large body size

C) short life span

D) production of large numbers of offspring

79) Rachel Carson was particularly critical of the use of DDT to:

A) eradicate mosquitoes in wetland areas.

B) control the spread of Dutch elm disease.

C) control pests in national parks.

D) fertilize large areas of corn and soy crops.

80) The global human population in 2013 was more than:

A) 10 billion and is increasing at an annual rate of 5%.

B) 2.2 billion and is no longer growing.

C) 7.1 billion and is growing at a rate of 1.2%.

D) 13 billion and is decreasing at a rate of 3% in developing nations.

81) 40) Because of the modern environmental movement:

A) world population has remained stable.

B) coal power plants are the main source of our electricity.

C) federal government is less involved in environmental policy.

D) solved some pollution problems.

82) The statement, “The Earth was not given to you by your parents, it was lent to you from your

children” best reflects:

A) junk science.

B) higher rates of consumption of non-renewable materials.

C) stewardship.

D) the need for a strong central or military government.

83) Which of the following has been most negatively impacted by globalization?

A) local cultures’ religious and dietary traditions

B) agricultural practices

C) public-health practices

D) the exchange of information

84) The foundation of all science and scientific discovery is:

A) an already accepted theory.

B) experiments.

C) multiple hypotheses, some of which are unanswerable.

D) observations.

85) In the classical view of economic activity, households:

A) are paid for goods and services.

B) pay for most of the labor.

C) consume goods and services.

D) provide most of the products.

86) Which is an example of produced capital?

A) stocks and bonds

B) laws and policies

C) organically grown mangoes

D) fisheries

87) Environmental public policy is intended to:

A) promote the harvesting of natural resources.

B) improve human welfare and protect the natural world.

C) ensure access to natural resources for industry.

D) measure the impact of industrial wastes on the environment.

88) Today, DDT is no longer used in the United States because it is banned by law. At this point, the issue has reached the:

A) control stage.

B) implementation stage.

C) formulation stage.

D) recognition stage.

89) The modern U.S. environmental movement began as a:

A) very partisan, divided effort, but now has broad bipartisan support.

B) very partisan effort, which remains partisan and highly contested today.

C) broad bipartisan effort, which remains in effect today.

D) broad bipartisan effort but has fractured into a very contentious partisan debate with

intense lobbying.

90) The Obama administration:

A) now censors scientific study that conflicts with its position.

B) now encourages the development of renewable energy and reduction of carbon

emissions.

C) no longer requires consultation with wildlife experts before approving projects

potentially harming endangered species.

D) has slashed the EPA’s budget so that little enforcement is possible.

91) Which biome is characterized by permafrost?

A) tundra

B) high latitude temperate forests

C) cold deserts

D) high latitude coniferous forests

92) This stage of succession starts with preexisting soil:

A) aquatic to terrestrial succession.

B) primary succession.

C) intermediate succession.

D) secondary succession.

93) Which of the following represents a resilience mechanism?

A) crown fires resulting from many years of fire suppression

B) the emergence of a meadow in a recently burned forest

C) soil erosion resulting from burned soil washing away from a forest floor

D) burned trees accumulating on a forest floor after a fire

94) Energy transfer between trophic levels in aquatic systems is generally:

A) less efficient than terrestrial food pyramids.

B) less efficient than a detritus food web because aquatic systems lack fungi.

C) inverted, in which more energy is transferred from one trophic level up to the next.

D) more efficient than terrestrial systems.

95) About 40% of the land’s primary production on Earth:

A) has been destroyed by global climate change.

B) has been appropriated to meet human needs.

C) uses more oxygen than it produces.

D) has been lost just to build enough homes for all of the people on Earth.

96) The social and economic changes in Thailand over the past 50 years have:

A) caused the population to decline by 20%.

B) been at the expense of poorer nutrition for children.

C) slowed population growth significantly.

D) shown that the nation has yet to undergo the fertility transition.

97) Two conflicting approaches to helping countries through the demographic transition require  different types of aid. An attempt to provide aid using both approaches might include:

A) desalination plants to bring in more fresh water and distribution of vaccines.

B) shipments of large amounts of food and improvements in sanitation systems.

C) construction of recycling plants and investment in pollution control systems.

D) investments in banks and distribution of birth control.

98) The most recent Cairo population conference in 1994 found widespread agreement that the greatest way to help developing countries was to:

A) limit their population growth.

B) increase their use of modern medicine.

C) improve their agricultural productivity.

D) limit their environmental degradation.

99) The window of opportunity presented by the demographic dividend generally ends as:

A) people start having larger families.

B) people live longer.

C) economic pressures require more people to work.

D) rural populations increase.

100) The Millennium Development Goals were wide ranging, but did not specifically address:

A) communicable disease.

B) maternal health and child mortality.

C) higher secondary and college education.

D) environmental sustainability.

Using evidence from Suetonius’ Life of Julius Caesar, explain how a Roman citizen became politically influential during the period of the Late Republic (the first century BCE).

1. As citizens of the democratic city-state of Athens, why did Cleon and Diodotus disagree about the value and role of public debate and democracy, especially for deciding issues of foreign policy?

2. Using evidence from Suetonius’ Life of Julius Caesar, explain how a Roman citizen became politically influential during the period of the Late Republic (the first century BCE).

3. Using evidence from Josephus’ account of the the situation in Judea in the decades before the outbreak of the Jewish War in 67 AD, explain why segments of the Jewish population rebelled against Roman rule? (Keep in mind that Josephus’ account covers over half a century. Don’t focus excessively on events from a single year, especially if the events took place forty years before the rebellion.)

Essay requirements and grading criteria

1. It should be between 1000 and 1200 words in length.

2. The introduction paragraph must contain an analytical statement (thesis) that answers the topic question and states the argument you are making in the essay.

3. Any subsequent paragraphs (body paragraphs) should begin with an analytical topic sentence.

4. It must not quote more than 75 words.

5. It should make at least seven references to the text. You must provide page citations for these references.  You may use parenthetical references for these citations.  For example, cite in the following manner, (Josephus, 54).

6. It should be free of spelling or grammatical mistakes.

This is not a research paper but an essay in which you develop an argument about one of the primary sources we have read. No other research is required.  Using uncited information from a web source constitutes plagiarism.

Training should be increased during tough times.

Costs are a consideration of every organization and in economically difficult times many managers may want to cut the “training budget” to save costs.

I’m sure that you’ve heard that training is always the first to go in tough times.  But is that really the smartest business strategy to employ–or during economically difficult times should the “training budget be increased? Write a paper in which you support one of the following…

  • Training should be cut in tough times

OR

  • Training should be increased during tough times

 

The requirements below must be met for your paper to be accepted and graded:

  • Write between 750 – 1,250 words (approximately 3 – 5 pages) using Microsoft Word in APA style, see example below.
  • Use font size 12 and 1” margins.
  • Include cover page and reference page.
  • At least 80% of your paper must be original content/writing.
  • No more than 20% of your content/information may come from references.
  • Use at least three references from outside the course material, one reference must be from EBSCOhost. Text book, lectures, and other materials in the course may be used, but are not counted toward the three reference requirement.
  • Cite all reference material (data, dates, graphs, quotes, paraphrased words, values, etc.) in the paper and list on a reference page in APA style.

References must come from sources such as, scholarly journals found in EBSCOhost, CNN, online newspapers such as, The Wall Street Journal, government websites, etc. Sources such as, Wikis, Yahoo Answers, eHow, blogs, etc. are not acceptable for academic writing.

A detailed explanation of how to cite a source using APA can be found here (link).

What value do you find in the development of the logic model as part of the program evaluation process after considering the development and application of the logic model?

Logic models play an important role in the development of a program evaluation and performance measure plan.
Read the articles “Logic Models: The Picture Worth Ten Thousand Words” and “The Use of Logic Models by Community-Based Initiatives” by Goldman and Schmalz (2006) and Kaplan and Garrett (2005), respectively. The articles further explore how to conduct and apply logic models. You will find the article by Goldman and Schmalz especially useful as it walks you through the creation of a logic model. Kaplan and Garrett’s article will provide valuable insight into the application of a logic model.
Tasks:
In a minimum of 200 words, respond to the following:
• What value do you find in the development of the logic model as part of the program evaluation process after considering the development and application of the logic model?

What are the benefits of including qualitative data in the evaluation process.

This module taught you that although much of the data collected in a program evaluation and performance measurement will be quantitative, it is very important that we do not overlook the value of qualitative data within this process. Fitzpatrick et al. (2004) suggested six steps in developing an evaluation design (p. 261):
1. Focusing the evaluation
2. Collecting information
3. Organizing information
4. Analyzing information
5. Reporting information
6. Administering the evaluation
For a beginner, it is important to decide whether he or she is interested in doing a descriptive or causal study. From there, one needs to become much more specific. With descriptive studies, for example, there are time-series designs, cross-sectional designs, and case studies, one type being the thick description.
Exploring data source options can be helpful for those who are considering a dissertation topic as well as students who want to know about evaluation. Many students tend to think immediately of surveys when they think about data, but gradually they will find, there are many data sources. Furthermore, while looking at sources of data, it is also useful to read about how to best collect data and under what circumstances.
After data have been collected and analyzed, the work is far from finished. The evaluator needs to think carefully about how to report it. Furthermore, planning includes determining the scope and sequence of the evaluation.
Finally, one needs to carefully plan how the evaluation is to be managed in terms of selecting personnel, making budgets, and writing formal agreements and contracts.
Reference:
Fitzpatrick, J. L., Sanders, J. R., & Worthen, B. R. (2004). Program evaluation:
Alternative approaches and practical guidelines (3rd ed.). Boston, MA:
Pearson.
Tasks:
In a minimum of 200 words, respond to the following:
• What are the key characteristics of qualitative evaluation methods?
• What are the benefits of including qualitative data in the evaluation process?
Do you believe that an evaluator can deliver and complete a valid evaluation of a program or an agency without including qualitative data? Why or why not

Compare and contrast CEA, CUA, and CBA.

This module taught you that economic evaluation has become a vital part of program evaluation over the past couple of decades as stakeholders have demanded economic efficiency in their agencies and programs. The textbook discusses three types of economic evaluation methods: the cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), the cost-unity analysis (CUA), and the cost-benefit analysis (CBA).
Tasks:
In about 200 words, respond to the following:
• Compare and contrast CEA, CUA, and CBA.
• Find an article that discusses a program evaluation where at least one of these was used. Why do you think the evaluator chose this specific analysis? How were the findings from the analysis applied to the overall evaluation?
In your program evaluation plan in M5 Assignment 2 RA 2, which of these do you think would be the best fit for the social agency or human services program? Why?

Write a summary and analysis of the article, and make sure to cite the article in APA format and include a link.

Locate an article of your choice that is about a current issue in juvenile justice. Write a summary and analysis of the article, and make sure to cite the article in APA format and include a link. The requirements for your article summary and analysis are:  100 word summary and 200 word analysis (300 words total).  Double spaced, Times New Roman 12 pt. font.  Refer to the grading rubric on the next page.  Be sure to read the grading criteria by which your paper will be evaluated before you write the paper and again after you write your paper.