Author: chris

Application: Health Information Patient Handout
One of the pivotal goals of consumer health literacy efforts is to design educational materials that attract as well as educate users. In this Assignment, you design a health information document on a topic that is of interest to you.
To prepare:
• Select a health issue of interest to you.
• Identify the audience or population that you seek to educate about this issue.
• Search the Internet to find credible sites containing information about your selected topic.
• Review the two health literacy websites listed in this week’s Learning Resources. Focus on strategies for presenting information.
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. (n.d.a). Quick guide to health literacy. Retrieved June 19, 2012, from http://www.health.gov/communication/literacy/quickguide/Quickguide.pdf
Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (n.d.). Health literacy online. Retrieved June 19, 2012, from http://www.health.gov/healthliteracyonline/
The Harvard School of Public Health. (2010). Health literacy studies. Retrieved from http://www.hsph.harvard.edu/healthliteracy

To complete:
• Design an educational handout on the health issue you selected.
o Include a cover page.
o Include an introduction that provides:
 An explanation of your issue and why you selected it
 A description of the audience you are addressing
o In the handout itself:
 Develop your handout in such a way that it attracts the attention of the intended audience.
 Include a description of the health issue and additional content that will enhance your message (i.e., key terms and definitions, graphics, illustrations, etc.).
 Recommend four or five sites that provide clear, valuable, and reliable information on the topic.
Note: Remember to keep the information in your health handout and its design at the appropriate level for the audience you are seeking to inform. Submit your Assignment as a Word document with APA formatting. You can use one of Microsoft office tri-fold brochure templates or just a two sided page. Ideally this would be similar to a patient education document that you’d give out.

References
5 Academic sources

You may find these sites helpful:
Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (n.d.). Health literacy online. Retrieved June 19, 2012, from http://www.health.gov/healthliteracyonline/
The Harvard School of Public Health. (2010). Health literacy studies. Retrieved from http://www.hsph.harvard.edu/healthliteracy
Huff, C. (2011). Does your patient really understand? H&HN, 85(10), 34. Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.
Health literacy: How do your patients rate? (2011). Urology Times, 39(9), 32.
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. (n.d.a). Quick guide to health literacy. Retrieved June 19, 2012, from http://www.health.gov/communication/literacy/quickguide/Quickguide.pdf

Christian history is human history, incorporating all of the dimensions of human experience from institutions to economics to wars. But at its foundation, Christianity is a way of thinking about reality, and the varied ways Christian thinkers have articulated and explained the faith have been at the heart of some of the most important developments of Christian history. Although no idea is the product of a single isolated mind, one person can usually be identified as the main innovator or spokesperson of a particular idea. Select one such Christian thinker (not including Jesus or any of the New Testament writers) and make the case that his/her thought had a drastic effect on the course of Christian history. To do this, you will need to (1) describe the thinker and his/her main idea in historical context; and (2) argue specifically how this idea effected historical developments in the thinker’s own time and in later history. This might entail how later people implemented this idea, elaborated on it, or reacted against it. Note—you do not have to write on an “orthodox” Christian thinker; feel free to pick a “heretic,” because often heretical thought is more historically important (and more fun!) than orthodox thought.

You will turn in your essay electronically through CANVAS. Use—and cite—at least three sources other than your textbook to help you grapple with this question. Use footnotes, with complete bibliographic information on first reference, but do not include a separate bibliography. For guidelines, see http://www.press.uchicago.edu/books/turabian/turabian_citationguide.html.

Your essay should be 1,000-1,500 words, double spaced, and have a clear beginning, middle and end, meaning:
1. An introduction that states the issue you are addressing and states briefly what you will argue;
2. A body of at least three paragraphs that makes claims based on historical data in conversation with secondary sources (are you agreeing or disagreeing with other scholars? Disagreeing with scholars is certainly acceptable, but you should also cite at least one scholar who agrees with your conclusions);
3. A concluding paragraph that concisely restates your main points and perhaps makes a broader observation about the overall importance of the subject you have treated (i.e., how does your discussion bear on biblical interpretation, or spiritual life, or our understanding of Christian history?)

Other things to bear in mind if you want a good grade:

Christian history is human history, incorporating all of the dimensions of human experience from institutions to economics to wars. But at its foundation, Christianity is a way of thinking about reality, and the varied ways Christian thinkers have articulated and explained the faith have been at the heart of some of the most important developments of Christian history. Although no idea is the product of a single isolated mind, one person can usually be identified as the main innovator or spokesperson of a particular idea. Select one such Christian thinker (not including Jesus or any of the New Testament writers) and make the case that his/her thought had a drastic effect on the course of Christian history. To do this, you will need to (1) describe the thinker and his/her main idea in historical context; and (2) argue specifically how this idea effected historical developments in the thinker’s own time and in later history. This might entail how later people implemented this idea, elaborated on it, or reacted against it. Note—you do not have to write on an “orthodox” Christian thinker; feel free to pick a “heretic,” because often heretical thought is more historically important (and more fun!) than orthodox thought.

You will turn in your essay electronically through CANVAS. Use—and cite—at least three sources other than your textbook to help you grapple with this question. Use footnotes, with complete bibliographic information on first reference, but do not include a separate bibliography. For guidelines, see http://www.press.uchicago.edu/books/turabian/turabian_citationguide.html.

Your essay should be 1,000-1,500 words, double spaced, and have a clear beginning, middle and end, meaning:
1. An introduction that states the issue you are addressing and states briefly what you will argue;
2. A body of at least three paragraphs that makes claims based on historical data in conversation with secondary sources (are you agreeing or disagreeing with other scholars? Disagreeing with scholars is certainly acceptable, but you should also cite at least one scholar who agrees with your conclusions);
3. A concluding paragraph that concisely restates your main points and perhaps makes a broader observation about the overall importance of the subject you have treated (i.e., how does your discussion bear on biblical interpretation, or spiritual life, or our understanding of Christian history?)

Other things to bear in mind if you want a good grade:

Use academic tone. The language of this paper should be something close to the language you would use for a professional speech. Use words you are comfortable with, but do not write as if you were speaking with a friend. This means no contractions (don’t, can’t, etc.), and no pointless filler words or phrases, such as “literally,” “really,” “I feel that” or “in my opinion.” MAKE EVERY WORD COUNT!

Assignment 1: Standards Research
Due Week 2 and worth 80 points
The following Website may be used for reference to complete this assignment. The Website represents an electronic document titled “Standards Organizations” written by William Stallings (2009), located at http://www.box.net/shared/9dtnzvwys8/1/15730219/164146343/1.
Write a three to four (2-3)page paper in which you:
1. Select one (1) of the working groups in the IETF or IEEE and briefly summarize what this group is working on.
2. Justify the need of the IEEE 802 standard used in networking.
3. Evaluate the three (3) standard organizations including IEEE, ISO, and ANSI to determine the most important for communication technology.
4. Take a position on the need for a federal regulating body of standards such as NIST. Include supporting evidence to justify your opinion.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the needs of communication networks in a business environment.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in communication networks.
• Write clearly and concisely about communication networks using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric.

Module Name: Shipping Law
LLM ASSESSMENT COURSEWORK 2014/2015
WORD LIMIT – 3500 words (maximum)
The word limit does not include footnotes, appendices or bibliography. Footnotes must be used for references only. Any narrative or description contained within footnotes or appendices will be disregarded by the marker. References must be made in OSCOLA format.
The following rules apply to word limits for the coursework assessment:
a. Word count includes everything in the main body of the text (including headings, tables, citations, quotes, lists, etc.).
b. The references, footnotes (provided footnotes only include references) and bibliography are NOT included in the word count.
c. There is no penalty for exceeding the word count but the marker WILL stop reading once the word limit has been reached and nothing further will be taken into account in the allocation of marks. Therefore students will be penalised for a failure to be concise and for failing to conclude their work appropriately.
d. The word count needs to be clearly and correctly stated on the title page of the assignment. Incorrectly understating the word count constitutes an assessment offence and may result in further action.
WRITTEN COURSEWORK QUESTION
1. ‘Establishing a Constructive Total Loss for the purpose of making a claim in marine insurance is very difficult to prove.’ How have the courts dealt with this problem? Critically analyse and discuss.

The Glycemic Index (GI) is a useful metric but its use as a practical measure to assess diet is controversial. Which of the following is nota reason for this?
The GI varies
Time of day
Amylose is a component of starch and is made up of linear chains of which of the following sugars?
Glucose
Regulation of energy balance is largely controlled by the ___________, which receives sensory input from the ____________.
hypothalamus, nervous & endocrine systems
Which of the following sugars is largely digested in the Large intestine (bowel)?
Lactose
Omega-3 and Omega-6 are the only essential polyunsaturated fatty acids. They are regarded as essential because
The body cannot make them
You are a margarine manufacturer and have a product which contains 60% saturated fats and 40% polyunsaturated fats you would be able to label this product as polyunsaturated margarine?
false
Which of the following common nutrients is often found to be consumed in inadequate amounts?
Folate
Together with a negative energy balance, the BMR can ____
decrease up to 20%
The effect of our “genes” on nutrition is generally likely to be a complex interaction between genes and the environment in whichwe live. However some nutritional disorders are due to major disruptions of genes.
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to a mutation in an enzyme which converts phenylalanine into which of the following amino acids?
tyrosine
Which of the following amino acids is hydrolysed to the reform ornithine and urea?
Arginine
Which of the following amino acids are non-essential?
Alanine
Which of the following does not directly contribute to the basal metaobolic rate (BMR)?
proportion of muscle to lipid tissue
An omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acid is one where the first double bond is how many carbons away from the methyl end of the chain:
3
The absorptive capacity of the bowel for amino acids has to be greatly in excess of the dietary intake, because _______.
there is a considerable net daily secretion of proteins into the bowel
Non starch polysaccharides (NSP) are more commonly known as:
fibre
the recommended daily intake of protein for an average adult?
0.44 g protein/kg
Which of the following would not be classed as a micronutrient?
Glucose
What would happen if the satiety centre of the hypothalamus was destroyed?
Obesity
What would happen if the feeding centre of the hypothalamus was destroyed?
Starvation
There is considerable evidence that our “genes” can influence our response to diet and diet choices. Which of the following statements reflects evidence for genetic influences on nutrition?
Familial clustering of obesity in families
Which of the following hormones decrease appetite?
leptin
Which one of the following does not contribute to the biological activity of proteins?
amino group (H2N)
Even though cholesterol the starting material for many essential compound such as Vitamin D and steroid hormones it is not regarded as essential. This is because:
The human body can manufacture it
Both animals and plants store carbohydrates. The form used by animals is:-
Glycogen
The major nutritional role of carbohydrates is as a good source of energy. Approximately how many kilocalories are there per gram?
4
Short chain fatty acids are most likely to be found in which of the following foods?
dairy products
Both protein synthesis and protein degradation consume approximately _____ kJ/g of protein?
4
Which of the following is NOT correct?
Solanine in excessive amounts can improve neurological disorders
In a physiological state of injury or trauma, there is a shift in the pattern of protein synthesis and degradation due to the influential presence of cytokines.Which of the following is NOT correct?
In the liver there is an increase in the synthesis of albumin
The total amount of energy liberated by food if it were combusted in oxygen is referred to as?
gross energy
Direct calorimetry directly measures _______ from the subject?
heat loss
You conduct an experiment on a subject using the ventilated hood indirect calorimeter. Your record the CO2 production and O2 consumption and determine the respiratory quotient reading to be 0.825.
What does this indicate
mixture of carbohydrate and lipid oxidation
Protein turnover is influenced by the hormonal state of the body.
Which is the following is NOT correct?
Growth hormone has a catabolic effect on protein degradation
Which of the following energy requirements does not contribute to diet-induced thermogenesis?
metabolism
An essential nutrient is one which
Is not synthesised in the body
The indirect calorimetry Douglas Bag method measures energy expenditure of a subject.
Which of the following does not apply to this meathod?
Experimental length up to 24 hours
Indirect measures of lean body mass include
weight record
Of the macronutrients, which one most influences the amount of digestible energy?
protein
What is the subunit of proteins?
amino acids
Most babies are not lactose intolerant, but after we are weaned some people lose the ability to digest lactose. This is due to a decline in the production of which of the following?
lactase
A deficiency in Thiamin can lead to …….
Wernike-Korsakoff syndrome
Which of the following is not accurate about folate?
5-methyl THF cooperates with vitamin A to produce methionine and THF
What is the main buffer system in the body
bicarbonate
Which of the following is NOT correct?
N-acetylglucosamine promotes the growth of pathogenic bifidobacteria in our large intestine
Which of the following is NOT correct
Freezing processes result in increased enzyme function, thus decreasing bacterial growth
deficiency of vitamin D in children can lead to….
Rickets
Which of the following is NOT correct?
Loss of bone exists if the actions of osteoblasts is greater than osteoclasts
Which of the following is the correct order of the development of iron deficiency anaemia?
iron stores deplete → RBC production can still occur → iron stores exhausted → circulatory iron decreases → compromised erthropoiesis → anaemia
Which of the following is NOT correct?
Haem and non-haem iron have the same uptake pathway into mucosal cells of the GIT
Which of the following compensatory adjustments would occur in response to the ingestion of a large volume of water?
Decreased secretion of aldosterone
Total daily energy intake of fats & oils is?
20-30%
Select the correct statement about renal mechanisms of acid-base balance
kidney cells are able to synthesise bicarbonate ions
Bone metabolism can be measured by marker concentrations. Which of the following is a marker representing the function of osteoblasts?
Alkaline phosphatase
A deficiency in riboflavin can lead to
Cheilosis
A deficiency in Vitamin A can lead to
Bitôts spots
Which of the following would not be classed as a macronutrient?
Vitamin D
A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates:
respiratory acidosis
Which one of the following is NOT correct?
Bioavailability of vitamins is greater cereals than meats
Which neutral amino acid containing 2 amide-groups plays an important role in the ammonia buffer system?
Glutamine
Which of the following phytochemicals are responsible for the persistant flavours of herbs & spices?
Phenolics
Which of the following is correct?
Eggs contains the natural antioxidant lutein
Calcium stores in bone are tightly regulated by hormones. A decrease in circulating blood calcium leads to an incrase in parathyroid hormone. Which of the following is NOT due to an increase in PTH?
Reabsorption of P increases in the kidney
A deficiency in niacin can lead to
Pellagra
Which cation is present at the highest concentration inside cells under normal conditions?
potassium
Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
Seeds are high in vitamin C
Which of the following is NOT associated with iron overload?
anaemia
Which of the following types of people are not vulnerable to calcium deprevation?
People who cant absorb tetracyclines efficiently
Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that is made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is to:
reduce blood pressure by inhibiting sodium and water reabsorption
Which of the following is NOT correct?
An increase in oestrogen during menopause is responsible for the 1-2% loss of bone over the 5-10 year period
A deficiency in Vitamin B12 can lead to
Pernicous anaemia
Which two organs play the most important roles in controlling the body’s pH
Kidney and lungs
Which of the following is incorrect with regards to Vitamin A?
Our ability to see at night involves the interconversion between 9-cis retinoic acid and all-trans-retinal
What is the function of oesteoclast?
to excavate old worn bone
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Processing dried fruit results in an increased bioavailability of vitamin C
which is not correct?
Parboiling rice prior to milling promotes the inward migration of lipid-soluble vitamins to the endosperm.
The composition of breast milk will NOT be influenced by:
paternal dietary intake
The energy content of food is usually measured using:
bomb calorimetry
For an athlete in competition, which of the following statements should the athlete NOT be aiming for, with respect to their nutritional requirements?
During a prolonged competition program, achieve their nutritional goals by compromising their overall energy goals
What are the health benefit claims made for Yogurt?
Reduce diarrhoea, enhance immunity and reduce risk of early atopic disease
Which endogenous substrate is the most important when considering the fuel for muscles?
Muscle glycogen
All of the following are important procedures involved in describing foods prior to analysis of nutrient content except one. Which is the exception?
Cost of buying food at the local supermarket
Which organ in human is most metabolically active in regards to microflora and its activities?
large intestine
Which of the following sugars is largely digested in the Large intestine (bowel)?
lactose
Which of the following sugars is largely digested in the Large intestine (bowel)?
Measurement of energy intake using food diaries
If we continue to use the world’s resources at out current rate, how many planets will be required by 2030 to feed, clothe and maintain our existing lifestyles?
two
What is the fat content of colostrum?
2.6 g/100ml
Energy for muscle contraction is provided by the breakdown of:
ATP
Which of the following meals would consume the most fossil fuels during production?
A medium-rare T-bone steak with roasted fresh vegetables
Which of the following methods is usually used to calculate the amount of carbohydrates in a food
Extract in aqueous alcohol then measure by high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
What is considered the ideal pre-event meal?
Carbohydrate rich, low-fat meal
An adult with a BMI of 33 kg / m2 would be considered:
obese
Energy availability is defined as
energy intake minus the energy cost of training
Maternal iron deficiency anaemia may increase the risk of:
preterm delivery
Dysbiosis is a state in which
there is change in metabolic activity of microbiota
The efficiency of milk production is determined as:
the ratio of milk energy and the total energy cost of lactation
The placenta is the organ responsible for nutrient exchange between the mother and foetus, and is influenced by
expanding uteroplacental blood flow
A non-digestible carbohydrate /any ingredient that selectively stimulates growth of beneficial bacteria which improves host health is known as
Prebiotics
Which of the following does not fit the selection criteria for Probiotics?
Pathogenic and non-toxic bacteria
What supplements help to minimise the occurrence of neural tube defects?
folic acid
Which of the following is NOT included as a sports supplement?
caffeine
Nutritional status can be described as:
The state of health produced by the balance between nutrient intakes and nutrient needs
Which of the following is not a benefit of consuming fish & seafood?
Reduces risk of diabetes
The PMS ratio is used in relation to distribution of which class of nutrients in food?
fats
What is the range in centimetres that indicates mild undernutriton when measuring arm circumference in children under 5-years-old?
Over 12.5 cm and under 13.5 cm
Which nutrient class is the cause of the greatest source of variation when measuring the energy content of different foods?
Carbohydrates
It is estimated that the total energy cost of pregnancy for a woman who gains 12kg weight is 325 MJ. What is the recommended extra energy requirement in trimester 2 and trimester 3?
T2= 1.5 MJ/day; T3=1.9 MJ/day
Commercially, what is a functional food?
A branded food that claims explicitly or implicitly to improve human health or wellbeing
Which of the following is a non-essential food component that is thought to exert physiological effects and is often listed in the appendices for food composition tables?
Select one:
flavoniods
Of the various population based and individual methods of dietary assessment which involves marking a sheet to indicate the number of times a certain food stuff is consumed over a given period
Food frequency questionnaire
Maturation of an atherosclerotic plaque involves migration of which type of cells from the tunica media to the tunica intima?
smooth muscle
Magnesium is the second most abundant cation in cells after potassium, thus a dietary deficiency is not likely in people consuming a well balanced diet.
Which of the following clinical conditions is not likely to cause magnesium deprivation?
hypercalcaemic patients
Hyperhomocysteinaemia is thought to cause all of the following pathogenic mechanisms except one. Which is the exception?
Increased dysregulation of mocardial contracile elements
Which class of nutrients in foods is usually measured by microbiological methods
vitamins
Body Mass Index or BMI is useful in determining the degree of obesity, but it has limitations. In which of the following people might its use to determine if somebody was overweight not be very useful?
body builder
Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for anorexia nervosa in DSM-IV-TR?
A refusal to maintain a minimal body weight
A pathological fear of gaining weight
A distorted body image in which, even when clearly emaciated, sufferers continue to insist they are overweight
all of the above
A key diagnostic criterion for Anorexia Nervosa is the refusal to maintain a body weight at which of the following thresholds?
85%
Which of the following pieces of advice would a person trying to reduce their impact on the environment be most likely to follow?
only buy items that have been locally sourced
Which of the following is an anthropometric method used to assess nutritional status?
Measurement of the circumference of the lower limb
Which of the following is NOT correct with regards to the nutritional requirements during pregnancy?
The requirement of iron remain constant during gestation
Which one of the following food additives is best avoided?
The heavy metal, cadmium
Of all the different methods of dietary assessment which is considered to be the most valid?
biomarkers
In spite of numerous in vitro and animal studies demonstrating favourable results clinical trials have consistently failed to show a reduction in cardiovascular risk with increased consumption of which dietary antioxidant?
vitamin e
Given that obese women are commonly infertile, what management measures can be taken to see the return of ovulation, menstruation and fertility?
Weight reduction of 5-10% of their body weight
A recent meta-analysis by Siri-Tarino et al concluded that there was insufficient evidence to link increased consumption of a particular food with an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease. To which particular food were they referring to?
saturated fat
Two-thirds (2/3) of the calcium in the foetus is deposited during the last how many weeks of gestation?
10 weeks
Which of the following dietary patterns would be considered to be the most cardioprotective?
Preferential use of unmodified vegetable oils
Which of the following is false regarding studies of the relationship between diet and cardiovascular disease?
Studies of the link between diet and cardiovascular disease have been able to pinpoint direct causal relationships
Which of the following foodborne infections is the major cause of death
Listeria monocytogenes
Which organelle in a heart cell can be a signficant source of reactive oxygen species during ischaemic insults?
mitochondria
Ingestion of 1g per day of which mineral is thought to have only a trivial lowering effect on blood pressure?
calcium
The prospective cohort studies of health professionals conducted by the Harvard group have identified various dietary associations with cardiovascular disease. From these studies, which of the following foods has been identified as increasing risk?
coffee
At what stage during the production of 1kg of rice is there likely to be the greatest loss through wastage?
thrown away by consumer
Babies born underweight either because they are premature or because of inter uterine growth restriction (IUGR) are at higher risk of developing which of the following?
metabolic syndrome
Which of the following products contains the most embedded water?
150g hamburger
If you were going to cook a piece of fish for dinner which of the following methods of cooking is more likely to increase your risk of cancer?
grilling
There is some evidence for a link between food and adult cancers. In the case of colorectal cancer which of the following foods appears to increase the risk?
red meat
As we get older it becomes increasingly important to maintain a healthy diet. It is recommended that energy intake decrease with every decade over 50. What is the size of the decrease recommended?
5%
Probiotics can increase the host immunity to intestinal pathogens such as
Clostridium difficile
If a persons energy intake over 24 hours continually exceeds the amount of energy expended during the same time period what are the consequences?
stored as fat
An often overlooked factor involved in obesity is our lifestyle choices. For example most homes today are built with a building code that demands wall and ceiling insulation resulting in thermoneutral homes. The long term effects of this on the human body which can add to overweight are:
Overall decrease in metabolic rate
The major goal of the treatment of Bulimia Nervosa patients is to:
Eliminate binge eating and purging habits
If blood sample taken from a 20 year old women suffering from Anorexia Nervosa is analysed for various hormones which of the following is likely to be found?
low levels of leptin
Which of the following is true?
An energy surplus maybe needed to promote optimal gain in body mass for athletes of weight sports
On a typical day in a temperate region which route is responsible for the loss of the greatest amount of water from the body
urination
According to the survey undertaken by UNICEF in 2008 which country showed the higest rate of wasting in children under 5-years-old?
india
One of the long-term benefits of breast feeding appears to be a decreased risk of:
type 1 diabetes
Which of the following risk factors for the development of cardiovascular disease is
considered non-modifiable?
male gender
The demand that an individual places upon natural resources is best represented by
their:
ecological footprint
If a subject had an increased plasma pH and a decreased arterial concentration of
carbon dioxide, what would the homeostatic adjustments be?
Select one:
a decrease in acid excretion by the kidneys

Which of the following enzymes is not an endogenous redox buffering system?
Select one:
a. Catalase
b. Glutathione peroxidase
c. Hexokinase
d. Superoxide dismutase
Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following vitamins is an antioxidant?
Select one:
a. B1
b. B9
c. D
d. E
e. K
Question 3
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Which of the following minerals is required for optimum activity of glutathione peroxidase?
Select one:
a. Cobalt
b. Iron
c. Magnesium
d. Selenium
e. Sodium
Question 4
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What type of antioxidants did the Outback Rejuvenating Water claim to contain?
Select one:
a. Antioxidant minerals
b. Flavonoid antioxidants
c. Kakadu plums
d. Phytochemicals
e. Triple antioxidants
Question 5
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Which vitamin is normally responsible for the reduction of ferric ion to ferrous ion in vivo?
Select one:
a. A
b. B1
c. C
d. D
e. K
Question 6
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How much of solutions i., ii., and iii. would the students require to make a working solution with a final volume of 120ml?
Select one:
a. 10ml of solution i.; 100ml of solution ii.; and 10ml of solution iii.
b. 10ml of solution i.; 10ml of solution ii.; and 100ml of solution iii.
c. 100ml of solution i.; 10ml of solution ii.; and 10ml of solution iii.
d. 10ml of solution i.; 10ml of solution ii.; and 10ml of solution iii.
e. 10ml of solution i.; 100ml of solution ii.; and 1000ml of solution iii.
Question 7
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In table one, what will be the concentration of FeSO4.7H2O in standard no. 4 (std no. 4)?
Select one:
a. 1mM
b. 0.5mM
c. 0.25mM
d. 0.125mM
e. 0.063mM
Question 8
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In table one, from which tube would you take 500μl from in order to prepare standard no. 5 (Std no. 5)?
Select one:
a. Tube 1
b. Tube 2
c. Tube 3
d. Tube 4
Question 9
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In table one, how much water should be added to prepare standard no. 1 (Std no. 1)?
Select one:
a. 0μl
b. 250μl
c. 500μl
d. 750μl
e. 1000μl
Question 10
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What actions should the students take if reading b for any sample is greater than the absorbance measured for tube 6 (the most concentrated standard)?
Select one:
a. Further dilute the sample
b. Nothing because you can extrapolate the standard curve
c. Prepare a higher standard
d. Throw the sample away and forget about it
e. Use a more concentrated sample (e.g. 1 in 8)
Question 11
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The absorbance for reading b should be higher than reading a. What actions should the students take if reading b is less than reading a?
Select one:
a. Swap the readings around and subtract b from a
b. Take the value of b minus a to be zero
c. Throw the sample away and forget about it
d. Further dilute the sample
e. Use a more concentrated sample (e.g. 1 in 8)
Question 12
Correct
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In table three, what is the ΔAbs value for Twinings Pure Green Tea?
Select one:
a. 0.405
b. 0.416
c. 0.526
d. 0.99
e. 0.41
Question 13
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In table three, what was the concentration of Fe2+ yielded by the sample containing Jacob’s Creek Shiraz Cabernet (to three decimal places)?
Select one:
a. 0.412mM
b. 0.5mM
c. 0.53mM
d. 0.682mM
e. 1.188mM
Question 14
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In table three, what is the concentration of Fe2+ yielded by the sample containing cranberry juice (to three decimal places)?
Select one:
a. 0.127mM
b. 0.136mM
c. 0.201mM
d. 0.344mM
e. 0.89mM
Question 15
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In table three, what value should be inserted into the final column (i.e. after the correction for the dilution factor) for Nescafe Green Blend Coffee (to three decimal places)?
Select one:
a. 2.772mM
b. 4.468mM
c. 4.565mM
d. 11.532mM
e. 18.597mM
Question 16
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According to the FRAP assay, which of the samples tested was the best antioxidant?
Select one:
a. Cranberry juice
b. Glaceau vitamin water
c. Jacob’s Creek Shiraz Cabernet
d. Prune juice
e. Twinings pure green tea
Question 17
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According to the FRAP assay, which of the samples tested was the worst antioxidant?
Select one:
a. Jacob’s Creek Shiraz Cabernet
b. Nescafe Green Blend Coffee
c. Outback Spirit Rejuvenating Water
d. Prune juice
e. Twinings pure green tea
Question 18
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What do the results tell you about the claims made by Nescafe Green Blend coffee that it contains 70% more antioxidants than green tea?
Select one:
a. The claim is erroneous. According to the FRAP assay, the Nescafe Green Blend Coffee has only about half the antioxidant capacity of the Twinings Pure Green Tea
b. The claim is incorrect, although according to the FRAP assay the Nescafe Green Blend Coffee does have a slightly higher antioxidant potential
c. The claim is irrelevant. The assay warns us not to drink green tea or green coffee
d. The claim is wrong. The Twinings Pure Green Tea has three times the antioxidant capacity of the Nescafe Green Blend Coffee
e. They’re right, Nescafe Green Blend Coffee does contain 70% more antioxidants
Question 19
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What do the results tell you about the claims made by prune juice to have approximately fives times the oxygen radical absorbance capacity of cranberry juice?
Select one:
a. The claim is correct. Prune juice is far better than cranberry juice
b. The claim is erroneous. According to the FRAP assay cranberry juice has far greater antioxidant capacity than prune juice
c. The claim is incorrect. According to the FRAP assay prune juice only has about twice the antioxidant capacity of cranberry juice
d. The claim is irrelevant. Drinking juice is always preferrable to drinking water
e. The claim is neither here nor there, because cranberry and prune juice were easily the most potent antioxidants tested
Question 20
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Choose the best strategy from the following options that could be used to increase the validity of the results
Select one:
a. Increase the concentration of FeCl3.6H2O in the working solution
b. Increase the incubation time for the samples to 10 minutes
c. Increase the number of replicates measured
d. Increase the number of sample dilutions prepared
e. Increase the volume of sample used from 100 to 500µl

Q-Why did Murder attract so much attention in Victorian Britain?.

please focus on great britain not the world or America, look at the economic booms, literacy rates, newspapers, focus on a time period, look at murder towards children, wives,focus on local newspapers rather than national papers , look at what the relationship betwwen media consumption and punitive attitues, look at how murderes were treated by the press, what have other historians concluded to the findings, look at police and there effectivness. Please do not look at Jack the Ripper………look at the fear of crime etc.

Provide a clear account of Gary Hamel and C.K Prahalad’s system as set out by them (a brutal summary: core competences à core products, et.c). State what P+H suggest about what core competencies are. Expand on their use of Honda as an example.
Also include Eriksen and Mikkelsen’s critique of Prahalad +Hamel.
Why is there obscurity behind the theory of core competence?

Essential reading

The Core Competence of the Corporation C.K. Prahalad and Gary Hamel. Harvard Business Review

Gary Hamel and C.K Prahalad, ‘The Core Competence of the Corporation’ in Zack, Michael H. Knowledge And Strategy. Boston, MA: Butterworth-Heinemann, 2009. Print.
Eriksen, B., J. Mikkelsen (1996), Competitive Advantage and the Concept of Core Competence: in Foss, N. J., Knudsen C. (eds.), Towards a Competence Theory of the Firm, London.

Additional reading
Towards a Competence Theory of the Firm By Nicolai J. Foss, Christian Knudsen

https://hbr.org/1990/05/the-core-competence-of-the-corporation

Background: The assignment is intended to bring out the benefits and limitations of different approaches to project planning and control by relating these to the circumstances in the cases outlined. It is also intended to allow students to demonstrate their learning and competence in respect of the management of resources generally, but in particular elements of scope, schedule, quality, and cost.
Task 1 (40% marks) 600 words (+/- 10%) each short answer question requires a response in a few sentences for the questions awarded up to 4-6 marks and a paragraph for questions awarded up to 8-10 marks.
1) What are the core principles/characteristics of any project and why are they important? (8 marks).
2) How would you have defined the scope of the project in the case study (6 marks).
3) Using the information below, plot out a full project Gantt chart and identify the critical path? How many days does it take to complete the project? (6 marks).
4) What method(s) would you employ for cost management and why? (4 marks).
5) How would you have assessed and managed the risks on the project in the case study (6 marks).
6) What quality methods (project evaluation, monitoring and control) would you introduce to ensure this project is completed successfully (10 marks).

The Enron Collapse
Enron collapsed in the Autumn of 20001 amidst allegations of gross financial impropriety and mismanagement. Enron’s auditors: Arthur Anderson were also implicated in the scandal and also collapsed although their consulting arm, Accenture, continues to this day. Following the collapse the US government passed The Sarbannes Oxley legislation.

In order to approach the assignment you should first acquaint yourself with what went wrong at Enron AND Arthur Anderson. Remember we are looking for lessons learnt from an auditing perspective eg how can auditors prevent this ever happening again?

Here are some useful sources to get you started:

News Articles:

http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/business/1780075.stm
(excellent intros.)
http://www.businessweek.com/stories/2001-12-16/the-fall-of-enron
http://www.economist.com/node/940091

Journal articles:
http://www.journalofaccountancy.com/Issues/2002/Apr/TheRiseAndFallOfEnron.htm
(a general and easy to understand article)
file:///C:/Users/p0077514/Downloads/0f31752f23db439c08000000.pdf
(classic article by Delange and Arnold)
Benston, A. and Hartgraves, A. (2002) Enron: What happenened and what we can learn from it. Journal of Accounting and Public Policy, Summer, pp 105-127

Reports:
http://fpc.state.gov/documents/organization/8038.pdf

Enron and accounting:
http://www.economist.com/node/976011

Books:
Mclean, B. and McKlind, P. (2013) The Smartest Guys in the Room. NY: Penguin
(also a film of the same name)
Fox, L. (2003) Enron: Rise and Fall. NJ: Wiley

Clips:

(excellent lessons learnt video)

(excellent intro.)

(Anderson collapse)

(a more thorough account)